The Seven Practices in Detail — ITIL 4 Foundation practice questions

Which statement BEST defines a known error?

1. A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved
2. An incident that has occurred more than once in an agreed period
3. A fault that has been permanently corrected and then closed off
4. A documented instruction for restoring service after a failure

Answer: A — A problem that has been analysed but has not been resolved

A) Correct — a known error is a problem that has been analysed but not resolved, so its cause is understood even though the fault remains. B) describes recurring incidents, which may prompt a problem record but are not the definition. C) reverses the meaning: once permanently corrected, the error is no longer outstanding. D) describes a workaround, the term most often confused with known error.

Which set correctly lists the three types of change in ITIL 4?

1. Minor, significant and major changes
2. Planned, unplanned and retrospective changes
3. Standard, normal and emergency changes
4. Routine, exceptional and escalated changes

Answer: C — Standard, normal and emergency changes

C) Correct — ITIL 4 recognises standard, normal and emergency changes. A) borrows sizing language used informally in many tools but is not the ITIL 4 classification. B) invents a timing-based split. D) mixes vocabulary from incident handling and escalation into change terminology.

Which BEST describes the relationship between Service Desk and Incident Management?

1. They are two names for the same practice within the service value chain
2. The service desk captures demand; incident management restores service
3. Incident Management supersedes and replaces the service desk entirely
4. The service desk exists only to log and route change requests to teams

Answer: B — The service desk captures demand; incident management restores service

B is right because the two are distinct but tightly coupled: the desk is the entry point capturing demand, and incident management is the practice that minimizes impact by restoring service. A merges them. C removes the entry point. D narrows the desk to work it does not own.

Which is the PURPOSE of Service Level Management?

1. To restore service quickly after an unplanned interruption occurs
2. To set business-based service targets and manage delivery to them
3. To plan and track the financial budgets that each service consumes
4. To authorize and schedule changes to services and products safely

Answer: B — To set business-based service targets and manage delivery to them

B is right because service level management sets clear business-based targets and assesses, monitors and manages delivery against them. A is the purpose of incident management. C belongs to financial management of services. D is change enablement, a separate practice with its own authority model.

Which TYPE of change is pre-authorized, low-risk, and follows a well-known procedure?

1. Normal change
2. Standard change
3. Emergency change
4. Major change

Answer: B — Standard change

Standard change = pre-authorized, low-risk, well-known (e.g., password reset). Normal = assess + authorize. Emergency = urgent. 'Major' isn't a standard ITIL 4 type at this level.

An organization closes incidents as 'resolved' once the workaround is applied. What is the BEST critique?

1. The user is unblocked, so no further record needs to remain open at all
2. Resolving the incident is fine, but a problem record should stay open
3. A workaround removes the need for any problem management activity
4. An incident must never be closed while a workaround is still in place

Answer: B — Resolving the incident is fine, but a problem record should stay open

B is right because restoring service legitimately resolves the incident, yet the unaddressed cause justifies a live problem record. A stops at restoration and loses the cause. C is the common misconception that mitigation equals resolution. D holds incidents open needlessly and distorts restoration metrics.

The purpose of the service level management practice is to:

1. Handle all user-initiated requests to the agreed quality and in a friendly manner
2. Set clear business-based targets for service performance, so delivery can be managed against them
3. Manage the relationship with the suppliers whose contracts underpin the services
4. Make sure changes to services are assessed for risk before they are authorised

Answer: B — Set clear business-based targets for service performance, so delivery can be managed against them

B) Correct — service level management sets clear business-based targets for service levels so that delivery can be assessed, monitored and managed against them. A) is service request management. C) is supplier management, which supports service levels through underpinning contracts but is a separate practice. D) is change enablement.

Which BEST describes the purpose of the Problem Management practice?

1. To reduce incident likelihood and impact by managing causes and known errors
2. To restore normal service operation for each individual reported incident
3. To assess, authorize and schedule all changes to services and products
4. To manage user identities, credentials and authentication across all services

Answer: A — To reduce incident likelihood and impact by managing causes and known errors

A is right because the practice reduces the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes and managing workarounds and known errors. B is incident management. C is change enablement. D belongs to information security management and access control work.

Which is the PURPOSE of Change Enablement?

1. To eliminate changes so that the live environment stays stable
2. To minimize incidents by reducing the volume of change attempted
3. To maximize successful changes by assessing risk and authorizing them
4. To handle pre-defined user requests through a standard catalogue route

Answer: C — To maximize successful changes by assessing risk and authorizing them

C is right because the practice maximizes the number of successful service and product changes through risk assessment, authorization and management of the change schedule. A and B treat change as something to suppress rather than enable. D describes service request management.

The continual improvement model has seven steps. What is the FIRST step?

1. Take action, moving straight to implementation so that the improvement becomes visible quickly
2. Engage external consultants to define the improvement agenda before the organization commits
3. Measure progress against baseline metrics collected from the services already in operation
4. Implement the selected improvement and decide afterwards how its success will be judged
5. What is the vision? Establishing where the business is going before anything else is decided

Answer: E — What is the vision? Establishing where the business is going before anything else is decided

E is step one. The model runs: what is the vision, where are we now, where do we want to be, how do we get there, take action, did we get there, how do we keep the momentum going. A and D start with action, which risks improving something that does not serve the vision. C is 'where are we now' and 'did we get there', which come after the vision is set. B is not a step in the model at all.

SLA (Service Level Agreement)?

Documented agreement between service provider and customer. Specifies services + targets.

Service request?

Request from user for IT service or info (e.g., access, password reset).

Change enablement purpose?

Maximize successful service/product changes by ensuring proper assessment, authorization, scheduling.

What is a service request, and what is the purpose of service request management?

A service request is a request from a user or a user's authorised representative that initiates a service action which has been agreed as a normal part of service delivery. Its purpose is to support the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user-friendly manner.