FINRA SIE practice questions and exam guide

An issuer files a registration statement on March 1. Under the Securities Act of 1933, during the cooling-off period, a registered rep MAY:

1. Accept indications of interest from prospective buyers using a preliminary prospectus
2. Confirm sales orders at the indicated price
3. Send a sales brochure summarizing the deal
4. Accept payment held in escrow until effective date

Answer: A — Accept indications of interest from prospective buyers using a preliminary prospectus

A) Correct: only indications of interest (non-binding) and red-herring delivery are permitted during cooling-off. B) Sales cannot be CONFIRMED until effective date (common misconception — many reps think pricing locks in early). C) Only the preliminary prospectus may be sent — sales literature is prohibited. D) Accepting payment, even in escrow, is a 'sale' under the Act.

Which action is an example of expansionary FISCAL policy?

1. The Federal Reserve reduces bank reserve requirements
2. The Federal Reserve lowers the federal funds target rate
3. The Federal Reserve purchases Treasury securities in the open market
4. Congress increases infrastructure spending and temporarily cuts payroll taxes to stimulate demand

Answer: D — Congress increases infrastructure spending and temporarily cuts payroll taxes to stimulate demand

D) Correct: fiscal policy is government taxation and spending, controlled by Congress and the Treasury — increased spending plus a tax cut is a classic expansionary fiscal move. B) A Fed rate cut is expansionary MONETARY policy, a frequent point of confusion. C) Open market purchases are also a Fed monetary tool, not fiscal. A) Reducing reserve requirements is likewise a monetary action, not fiscal.

To COMBAT rising inflation, the Federal Reserve would MOST likely:

1. Lower the federal funds target rate to encourage borrowing
2. Raise the federal funds target rate and/or sell Treasury securities to reduce the money supply
3. Recommend that Congress raise income tax rates
4. Increase federal deficit spending on public works projects

Answer: B — Raise the federal funds target rate and/or sell Treasury securities to reduce the money supply

B) Correct: contractionary monetary policy — raising rates and/or draining reserves through open market sales — tightens the money supply to cool inflation. A) A rate cut is expansionary and would worsen inflation. C) Recommending tax changes is a fiscal lever controlled by Congress, not a Fed tool. D) Increased deficit spending is expansionary fiscal policy and would tend to add to inflationary pressure.

Which BEST describes 'dark pools'?

1. Public exchanges that publish all order data in real time
2. Crypto-only platforms
3. Government-run venues for treasury securities
4. Alternative trading systems (ATSs) that allow large block trades without displaying pre-trade quotes

Answer: D — Alternative trading systems (ATSs) that allow large block trades without displaying pre-trade quotes

D) Correct: dark pools are non-displayed ATSs designed for large institutional orders. A) Lit exchanges show quotes; dark pools do not. C) Treasuries trade on different venues (BrokerTec, Tradeweb) — not 'dark pools' as defined here. B) Dark pools predate crypto.

The PRIMARY function of the Federal Reserve's open market operations is to:

1. Influence the level of bank reserves and the federal funds rate
2. Finance the federal government's deficit spending
3. Set the prime rate charged by commercial banks
4. Regulate the issuance of Treasury securities

Answer: A — Influence the level of bank reserves and the federal funds rate

A) Correct: OMO buys/sells Treasuries to expand or contract reserves, steering the fed funds rate. B) Common misconception — Treasury issues debt; the Fed does NOT directly finance deficits. C) The prime rate is set by banks (typically fed funds + 3%), not the Fed. D) Treasury Department issues; Fed implements monetary policy.

Open-end mutual fund shares are priced and redeemed at:

1. The market bid at the time of order entry
2. Bid/ask quotes throughout the day, like ETFs
3. Net asset value (NAV) calculated once at the end of each business day, per the forward pricing rule (Rule 22c-1)
4. The previous day's closing NAV

Answer: C — Net asset value (NAV) calculated once at the end of each business day, per the forward pricing rule (Rule 22c-1)

C) Correct: Rule 22c-1 requires forward pricing at next-computed NAV. A/B) That describes ETFs/closed-end funds. D) Backward pricing is prohibited.

Which type of risk MOST directly affects an investor who buys a foreign company's stock without a currency hedge?

1. Reinvestment risk
2. Prepayment risk
3. Call risk
4. Currency (exchange-rate) risk: a strengthening U.S. dollar reduces returns when foreign returns are converted back

Answer: D — Currency (exchange-rate) risk: a strengthening U.S. dollar reduces returns when foreign returns are converted back

D) Correct: foreign equities expose investors to FX moves. A) Pertains primarily to fixed-income coupons. C/B) Bond features.

A KEY structural difference between an ETF and a traditional open-end mutual fund is that an ETF:

1. Can only be purchased directly from the issuing fund company at the end of the trading day
2. Trades throughout the day on an exchange at market-determined prices, while mutual fund shares are priced and transacted only once daily at NAV
3. Never has any expense ratio or management fee
4. Cannot track an index and must always be actively managed

Answer: B — Trades throughout the day on an exchange at market-determined prices, while mutual fund shares are priced and transacted only once daily at NAV

B) Correct: ETFs trade intraday on exchanges with prices fluctuating throughout the day, while mutual funds transact once per day at NAV after market close. A) Describes mutual fund purchasing mechanics, not how ETFs trade. C) ETFs do carry expense ratios, though often lower than actively managed funds. D) Many ETFs ARE actively managed, and index-trackers are not required to be actively managed at all — the claim is false in both directions.

A variable annuity's sub-accounts decline 15%. The contract owner's account value:

1. Is reduced only by the M&E fee
2. Is unchanged because the annuity guarantees principal
3. Declines, since investment risk is borne by the contract owner
4. Increases because of the insurance wrapper

Answer: C — Declines, since investment risk is borne by the contract owner

C) Correct: in a VARIABLE annuity, the contract owner bears market risk (vs FIXED annuity where the insurer bears it). B) Common misconception — only fixed annuities guarantee principal at the contract level (frame mismatch). A) Sub-account losses pass through directly. D) Wrong direction.

An investor who BUYS a call option on XYZ stock has:

1. The right, but not the obligation, to sell XYZ at the strike price before expiration
2. The obligation to sell XYZ at the strike price if the option is exercised
3. The right, but not the obligation, to buy XYZ at the strike price on or before expiration
4. The obligation to buy XYZ at the strike price if the option is exercised

Answer: C — The right, but not the obligation, to buy XYZ at the strike price on or before expiration

C) Correct: a long call gives the holder the right (not obligation) to buy the underlying at the strike price before expiration. A) Describes a long PUT, not a call — mixes up the two basic option types. B) Describes the obligation of a call WRITER, not a call buyer. D) Also describes an obligation, which applies to option WRITERS, not the buyer/holder.

Under a UTMA custodial account, once the minor reaches the age of majority specified by state law, which statement is MOST accurate?

1. The custodian retains control of the account indefinitely
2. The account must be liquidated and closed immediately, with no ability to hold securities further
3. Control of the account transfers to the now-adult beneficiary, who gains full authority over the assets
4. The assets automatically transfer to the custodian personally

Answer: C — Control of the account transfers to the now-adult beneficiary, who gains full authority over the assets

C) Correct: at the state-specified age of majority, custodial control ends and the assets, along with full investment authority, belong entirely to the beneficiary. A) Contradicts the purpose of the age-of-majority provision. B) There's no requirement to liquidate the account. D) A serious misconception — UTMA assets were always beneficially owned by the minor; the custodian never personally owned them.

VARIABLE ANNUITY:

1. Fixed insurance
2. Stock
3. Insurance + SECURITIES hybrid; subaccount investments (mutual-fund-like) drive accumulation; tax-DEFERRED growth; annuitization to income; HIGH FEES (M&E, admin, subaccount expenses); surrender charges; complex product requiring suitability
4. Bond fund
5. ETF

Answer: C — Insurance + SECURITIES hybrid; subaccount investments (mutual-fund-like) drive accumulation; tax-DEFERRED growth; annuitization to income; HIGH FEES (M&E, admin, subaccount expenses); surrender charges; complex product requiring suitability

Variable annuity: insurance product with securities risk shifted to annuitant. Tax deferral. Phases: accumulation, annuitization. Fees: M&E (1.25%+), admin (0.15%), subaccount expense (0.5-2%), riders (0.25-2%). Surrender charges 6-10 years. SIE complex product.

A 529 plan is a:

1. Federal tax-advantaged plan for education savings — earnings grow tax-deferred; qualified withdrawals federally tax-free (and often state)
2. Retirement account
3. HSA
4. Roth account
5. Trust

Answer: A — Federal tax-advantaged plan for education savings — earnings grow tax-deferred; qualified withdrawals federally tax-free (and often state)

529 plans: state-sponsored education savings. Two types: prepaid tuition and savings (investment-based). Earnings grow tax-deferred. Qualified withdrawals (tuition, room/board, etc.) tax-free. Some states offer state tax deduction.

A customer wants an order that must be filled in its entirety immediately, and if full immediate execution is not possible, the ENTIRE order should be canceled rather than partially filled or left open. This describes a:

1. All-or-none (AON) order
2. Good-til-canceled (GTC) order
3. Immediate-or-cancel (IOC) order, which allows partial fills
4. Fill-or-kill (FOK) order

Answer: D — Fill-or-kill (FOK) order

D) Correct: a fill-or-kill order demands complete, immediate execution or full cancellation — no partial fills, no resting on the book. A) An AON order also requires a complete fill, but it CAN remain open until fully executed rather than being canceled — missing the immediacy requirement. B) A GTC order has nothing to do with all-or-none fill requirements. C) IOC explicitly permits partial fills, canceling only the unfilled remainder — the opposite of the condition described.

A rep's tweet that recommends a specific security to her followers is BEST treated as:

1. Personal speech outside FINRA jurisdiction
2. A retail communication subject to Rule 2210, principal approval, recordkeeping, and content standards
3. Correspondence regardless of the number of viewers
4. An exempt activity if posted on the rep's personal account

Answer: B — A retail communication subject to Rule 2210, principal approval, recordkeeping, and content standards

B) Correct: public business-related social media posts are retail communications. A) FINRA reaches business-related communications. C) Public broadcasts exceed correspondence thresholds. D) Personal accounts used for business are still in scope.

Which statement BEST describes the relationship between FINRA and the SEC?

1. FINRA operates independently with no SEC oversight whatsoever
2. FINRA is a self-regulatory organization whose rules must be approved by, and whose conduct is overseen by, the SEC
3. The SEC is a subsidiary of FINRA
4. FINRA and the SEC have no working relationship since they cover entirely different markets

Answer: B — FINRA is a self-regulatory organization whose rules must be approved by, and whose conduct is overseen by, the SEC

B) Correct: FINRA operates as an SRO under SEC oversight — its proposed rules require SEC approval, and the SEC supervises FINRA's regulatory activities. A) Overstates FINRA's independence; SEC oversight is a defining feature of the SRO structure. C) Reverses the actual hierarchy — the SEC is the federal regulator with authority over FINRA. D) Understates the relationship; the two work closely within the same regulatory framework.

FINRA's Continuing Education (CE) requirement for registered persons generally includes:

1. A one-time exam taken only at initial registration, with no further requirements afterward
2. The Regulatory Element, required periodically after registration, and the Firm Element, an annual firm-based training program addressing job- and product-specific topics
3. No requirement at all once an individual passes their initial qualification exam
4. A requirement that applies only to supervisors, not to all registered representatives

Answer: B — The Regulatory Element, required periodically after registration, and the Firm Element, an annual firm-based training program addressing job- and product-specific topics

B) Correct: FINRA's CE program has two components — the Regulatory Element (completed at required intervals after registration) and the Firm Element (ongoing annual firm-based training). A) Understates the ongoing nature of CE; requirements continue throughout a career. C) A serious misconception — passing the initial exam does not exempt anyone from ongoing CE obligations. D) CE requirements broadly apply to registered persons generally, not exclusively supervisors.

Which is the PRIMARY function of FINRA?

1. Print money
2. Print stock certificates
3. Self-regulatory organization for broker-dealers — registers/qualifies professionals (Series exams), enforces rules, arbitrates disputes, examines firms
4. Set monetary policy
5. Tax securities

Answer: C — Self-regulatory organization for broker-dealers — registers/qualifies professionals (Series exams), enforces rules, arbitrates disputes, examines firms

FINRA: largest broker-dealer SRO in US. Registers reps (Series 7, 63, etc.). Enforces rules. Examines firms. Operates BrokerCheck and arbitration. Member-financed under SEC oversight. SIE is the FINRA-required entry credential.

Variable annuity sales — required licenses:

1. Series 6 + state insurance license (or Series 7 + insurance)
2. Just SIE
3. Series 63 only
4. No license

Answer: A — Series 6 + state insurance license (or Series 7 + insurance)

A) Standard. B/C/D) Each is incorrect.

Under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, broker-dealers must:

1. Pre-clear all trades with the SEC
2. Register with the IRS as financial intermediaries
3. Register with the SEC, become FINRA members, comply with net capital rules, and maintain books and records
4. File a prospectus before each customer trade

Answer: C — Register with the SEC, become FINRA members, comply with net capital rules, and maintain books and records

C) Correct: the 1934 Act governs broker-dealer registration, net capital (Rule 15c3-1), and recordkeeping (Rule 17a-3/-4). A) SEC doesn't pre-clear trades. B) IRS registration is a tax matter, not securities. D) Prospectuses are for new issues, not secondary trades.

What is the Securities Act of 1933?

Regulates the PRIMARY market — new issues. Requires SEC registration and full disclosure via a prospectus before selling new securities to the public.

What is FINRA's minimum maintenance margin requirement for a long margin account, and what happens if equity falls below it?

FINRA requires a minimum of 25% equity relative to the current market value of securities in a long margin account (many firms set higher 'house' requirements). If equity falls below the requirement, the firm issues a maintenance margin call requiring the customer to deposit additional funds or securities, or the firm may liquidate positions.

How does the ETF creation/redemption mechanism help keep an ETF's market price close to its NAV?

Authorized participants can create or redeem large blocks of ETF shares (creation units) in exchange for the underlying basket of securities. This arbitrage opportunity keeps the ETF's market price closely aligned with its NAV, unlike closed-end funds.

What is a self-regulatory organization (SRO)?

An organization that creates and enforces rules for its members. Examples: FINRA (broker-dealers), MSRB (municipal securities), CBOE (options).

What is a market order?

An order to buy or sell immediately at the best available price. Guarantees execution but not a specific price.

What is the primary market?

Where new securities are issued and sold for the first time (IPOs). The issuer receives the proceeds from the sale.